I'm having all kinds of trouble understanding this. Every article I read seems to have some unmentioned prerequisite amount of knowledge.

I have written a WCF service that was initially designed to be an intranet service. Now we are moving this service to a cloud hosting solution and it needs to only let authorized users call its methods.

I've since created an ASP.Net MVC 5 website for support purposes. The idea for this is that support staff will login to the mvc site with seeded credentials and add users as they sign up for the service. At the moment, users should not need to enter username or password anywhere. The service client will have username and password knowledge via local settings or configuration file or something and the authorization will be invisible to users. The MVC project seems to be working fine after some changes to the out-of-the-box flow. The database (remote) is created and being populated with new registered user information.

Because the WCF service is in a different project, and to keep a level of portability I have referenced that project in the MVC project. I then added a "wrapper" wcf service to the MVC project that I intend to be the forward facing door to the existing WCF project. In this wrapper wcf service is where the authentication should happen. I don't understand how to tie the ASP.Net Identity authorization used in the new MVC project into the wrapper wcf service. How can I make the wrapping service authorize user credentials against the identity database created and populated using the MVC site?

Thanks,

PS Transport security is not my issue at the moment so if possible leave those topics out.

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